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Monday, December 14, 2020

On the Question “Who knew Edward de Vere was Shakespeare?”

As I have presented in my Edward de Vere was Shakespeare: at long last the proof[1] — and detailed more fully in my Capulet, Capulet and Parolles[2] —  Ben Jonson revealed in his play Poetaster that Edward de Vere was the man behind the name “Shakespeare” and Romeo and Juliet a highly stylized version of the 1581 Vavasour affair.  How many of his fellow playwrights knew is not so clear. Certainly, John Marston and Joseph (later Bishop) Hall did, as exhibited by Hall’s Labeo satire and Marston’s reply. There is a high degree of likelihood that Shakspere of Stratford-Upon-Avon did based upon Jonson’s depiction of him as Sogliardo, in Everyman Out of his Humour, being laughed down for pretending to merit the figure of a boar (the De Vere family totem) on his family crest.  There is also a high degree of likelihood that Thomas Nashe did. All said and done, there were surely dozens associated with the English court and London stage who knew or thought they knew more or less about the relationship between Vere and the name “Shake-speare”.

But how much more? How much less?

Claims have been made over the nearly two centuries since there have been public debates over the authorship of the works of Shakespeare. Most particularly over the past several decades. But, while the question deserves attention, theories have tended to be based upon the personalities of the persons making the claims.

Furthermore, because general readers tend to be attracted to theories in proportion to the degree of theatrical polish with which lurid and/or cloak-and-dagger aspects are expressed, the personalities who impress are those who are absolutely certain quite apart from the existence of evidence or lack thereof. Perhaps the most impressive of all are those who discover powerful, undeniable evidence in the lack of evidence. These people knew because they had to write in code. Those people knew because surely they would have, and, even more conclusively, the evidence that undeniably should exist that they did, doesn’t.

Joseph Hall knew that at least some of the works we now attribute to Shakespeare were written by an ignoble nobleman under a pseudonym. How many of the works we do not know. He like a number of others felt it best to leave that nobleman’s name unstated. Still, he found his works called in to be burned.

Under the name of “Ponticus” — a famous ignoble nobleman from the Eighth Satire of Juvenal — Hall says of the pseudonymous author:

Or if (O shame!) in hired harlot's bed

Thy wealthy heirdom thou have buried[3]

So this nobleman has wasted his estate. Was it for the sake of satire that it is said that he wasted it on drabs? Or was that what Hall had heard? Have we learned that was the word going around? Were prostitutes more a part of Edward de Vere’s expenses than we can verify now some 500 years later? Is the harlotry intended to describe amateur adulterous sexual activity as opposed to professional?

Like Edward de Vere, Ponticus has been to Venice and Rome.

Sith Pontian left his barren wife at home,

And spent two years at Venice and at Rome,

Returned, hears his blessing ask'd of three,

Cries out, O Julian law! adultery!

When Edward returned he denied the child his wife had just begun carrying as he departed England was his own. But, just as he was not gone  for two years but one, his wife did not give birth to two children but one. And the child was almost certainly his.

What exactly did Hall know? He obviously knew enough to mark his target out, to history, as Edward de Vere, the Earl of Oxford. But was the word going around that his wife, the Countess of Oxford, conceived two children in his absence? Exaggeration is, after all, a staple of satire. Never so much, however, as of gossip.

There is much more. But the present point is that saying Jonson, Marston, Hall, etc., knew that Edward de Vere was Shakespeare describes only a small number of people that we can say with such certainty knew. It is important that we state evidence no more “coded” into texts than the common tropes of satire or the rules granted by the playwrights of London governing the (highly informative) War of the Theaters to which Jonson’s Poetaster belonged.

More generally, statements presenting theories of the Elizabethan court as undeniable certainties need evidence as well. It is by no means certain that Queen Elizabeth knew the identity of Shakespeare. It is highly likely that his works as a playwright were not known to her until 1598 when he was revealed to have authored certain plays.

Elizabeth’s court, for all its informants, did not “surely know” the playwright of every public play and the content.[4] It is by no means a matter of  course that anyone other than a nobleman would have been severely punished by the court for writing The Tragedie of King Richard the Second, as is commonly asserted. This because it is not clear that anyone at court knew who had written it. Furthermore, it is not clear that the offensive passages were included in the initial performances[5] which were presented over a decade before the play was first published and later famously performed for the members of the Essex Rebellion. Therefore, lack of evidence of public punishment is not circumstantial evidence for the court knowing Edward had written the play.

The question as to who knew what is fascinating and important. Too much so to answer it by a comparison of numbers of page-clicks.



[1] Edward de Vere was Shakespeare: at long last the proof  https://www.amazon.com/dp/1543136257/

[2] Capulet, Capulet and Parolles https://www.amazon.com/dp/B08LLDM91P

[3] bury-ed

[4] There is plenty of evidence, on the other hand, to support that officers did know the plays that appeared at the early Blackfriars theater.

[5] The state of the 1597 First Quarto of Richard II does, however, make it clear that the offensive passages almost certainly existed before that publication.


Also at Virtual Grub Street:



1 comment:

P. Buchan said...

Though I reject the idea that Oxford was the author of Shakespeare's works, I find him an interesting historical subject. I have to think that there was more to his suspicion of his wife's pregnancy than that, for five years, he was ignorant of human biology. He shunned his wife and child, publicly, humiliating her family including his powerful and prominent father-in-law, William Cecil.

Then, when he scandalized the Court with his own illegitimate child fathered with Anne Vavasour, his father-in-law intervened to release him from prison. Pure speculation, but I wonder if Cecil has a message for Oxford: both Anne and you strayed, but Elizabeth is furious with you, and if you want to get out of the tower any time soon, you'll need my help. End your tantrum, and get going on your duty as a nobleman to father an heir, and give me a grandson with a title (the only reason he wanted to marry his daughter to Oxford). And that's exactly what Oxford did, though he only succeeded in fathering two more daughters. From Oxford's perspective, daughters weren't of any value in passing on his patrimony. When Anne died, the daughters were moved to Cecil house, and Oxford got wife #2 pregnant and succeeded in fathering an heir.

As we've seen, Oxford seemed to think the Cecils were valuable contacts with the Court, but his expectation that they were looking out for his interests weren't well founded. Robert in particular was very suspicious of Oxford's motives and his interest in the daughters, and kept Oxford away from them. There's little evidence that Oxford was close to his daughters or they to him.